Spanglish Jesus or AWANA Jesus

Sometimes studying scripture can make you feel better.  On the cross in intense pain, Jesus cried out “My God, My God, why hast thou forsaken me?  However he did not directly quote from Psalm 22:1.  He speaks in a type of Spanglish mixing Hebrew and Aramaic.  He begins in Hebrew with “Eli, Eli lama”, but then switches over to Aramaic for the verb.  Certainly not a direct quote, but when you are Jesus everything you say is scripture.  The next time you do not word for word quote a Bible verse or you speak two languages in the same sentence, perhaps you can say, “Jesus did it”.  Then again this probably would not work as well for you as it did for Him.

Matthew 27:46 And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is to say, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?

Mark 15:34 And at the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani? which is, being interpreted, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?

Gospel of Peter 1:5 And the Lord screamed out, saying: 'My power, O power, you have forsaken me.' And having said this, he was taken up.

Psalms 22:1 Hebrew: Eli, Eli lama azavtani

Psalms 22:1 Aramic (Targum): Eli elahi metul ma shabaktani

Psalms 22:1 LXX: Ho Theos Ho Theos mou prosches moi hina ti egkatelipes me

PS It is interesting how the Hebrew Names Version translates this.

Mark 15:34 HNV At the ninth hour Yeshua cried with a loud voice, saying, "Elohi, Elohi, lama shavakhtani?" which is, being interpreted, "My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?"

Matthew 27:46 HNV About the ninth hour Yeshua cried with a loud voice, saying, "`Eli, `Eli, lima shavakhtani?" That is, "My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?"

PSS The Aramaic word, shebaq is used five times in the Old Testament mostly in Daniel: Ezra 6:7, Dan 2:44, Dan 4:15, Dan 4:23, Dan 4:26.

PSSS The LXX has inserts another verb into the Psalm.  Verse one reads, “O God, my God, attend to me: why hast thou forsaken me?”.  So the gospel writers’ translation does not directly quote from the LXX. 

PSSSS Yes, I know that Matthew says “Eli” and Mark says “Eloi” (El-owe-i).  By adding another syllable, the writer of Mark may have been trying to explain why others heard “e-li-yah”.  There are other more complicated explanations that I will not get into.  The writer of Mark may have been trying to tranliterate Elohi (El-owe-hi).